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Lindemann
  
Number of games in database: 1
Years covered: 1893


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LINDEMANN
Germany

[what is this?]
Last updated: 2021-01-18 04:51:49

 page 1 of 1; one game  PGN Download 
Game  ResultMoves YearEvent/LocaleOpening
1. Lindemann vs Echtermeyer 0-131893KielB01 Scandinavian

Kibitzer's Corner
Oct-14-04  yoozum: lol, worst move EVER.
Dec-10-05  chesscrazy: <yoozum> He touched the king so he had to move it. The only legal move he could do was Ke2.
Feb-21-06  McCool: Why did he touch his king then?
May-13-06  itz2000: touch move?
human instinct?
Aug-13-06  siilarsi: <chesscrazy> <McCool> <itz2000> This is a chess site! Pervs!
Sep-25-08  fref: What a beautiful game! No really, what the heck Lindemann thought when he played 3.Ke2?
Jan-27-09  number 23 NBer: Okay, <siilarsi>, as far as I can see, <itz2000>'s comment is the only one that could have subtext, and I don't understand what the subtext would be anyway. Are you being sarcastic(well, I suppose were would be a more accurate word)?
Jun-03-10
Premium Chessgames Member
  whiteshark: If it helps you along: <Lindemann proved in 1882 that e^α is transcendental for every non-zero algebraic number α, thereby establishing that π is transcendental.>
Jul-21-10  jbtigerwolf: chesscrazy is right. Lindemann touched the King, so he had to move it. I am 99.99% sure that is the reason.

The touch-move rule seems harsh, but it is necessary for when there is a trap... you don't see the trap until you touch your piece. Traps and surprises are an exciting part of the game.

Jul-21-10  acirce: <Lindemann touched the King, so he had to move it. I am 99.99% sure that is the reason.>

That's funny, because it wasn't the reason. Look at the game page, it's explained there.

Jul-28-10  jbtigerwolf: No, the annotation says that Black did not make the text checkmate move, 3...♕e4#, but instead played on, toying with his opponent.

It does not explain why White made his 3rd move, 3.♔e2.

So it is an open finding as to why White made that move. He either touched the King and had to move or was simply careless.

Aug-04-16
Premium Chessgames Member
  alexmagnus: <Lindemann proved in 1882 that e^α is transcendental for every non-zero algebraic number α, thereby establishing that π is transcendental>

Hm, how is pi and algebraic power of e?! Did I miss something basic in my mathematics days at the university? Although we were never shown the proof of pi's transcendence - and, funnily, I wanted to look it up tomorrow, for a totally different reason.

Aug-04-16  john barleycorn: <alexmagnus>

try this one
http://sixthform.info/maths/files/p...

Aug-05-16
Premium Chessgames Member
  alexmagnus: Aha, so it was a proof by contradiction. - if pi were algebraic, i*pi would be algebraic too, and, by Lindemann's theorem cited above, e^(i*pi) would be transcendental. But e^(i*pi) is not just algebraic, it is actually integer, so i*pi, and therefore pi itself, must be transcendental.

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