1) The people were waiting for a Prophet, apart from the Messiah and John the Baptist as indicated in John 1:21. ('That Prophet')

2) Jesus (pbuh) talking in some detail about a Comforter to come after him. John 16:7-14

3) The Comforter couldn't be the Holy Ghost cause Jesus (pbuh) has to leave for him to come.

4) Also the use of 'he' throughout the referencing of the Comforter, indicating that it would be a human being.

5) The fact that the word Parakletos is so close to Periklytos.

<The Greek word paravklhtoß, ho parakletos, has been translated as ‘Comforter.’ Parakletos more precisely means ‘one who pleads another’s cause, an intercessor.’>

I'm okay with all of that.

< The ho parakletos is a person in the Greek language, not an incorporeal entity.>

I think this assumes the conclusion.

< In the Greek language, every noun possesses gender; that is, it is masculine, feminine or neutral. In the Gospel of John, Chapters 14, 15 and 16 the ho parakletos is actually a person.>

More of the same. Again, the Godhead is routinely described in the masculine case.

< All pronouns in Greek must agree in gender with the word to which they refer and the pronoun “he” is used when referring to the parakletos.>

That's because the Godhead is always described in the masculine case. There are some descriptions of God's attributes that suggest a feminine nature or side, but the pronouns are always masculine.

< The New Testament uses the word pneuma, which means “breath” or “spirit,” the Greek equivalent of ruah, the Hebrew word for “spirit” used in the Old Testament. Pneuma is a grammatically neutral word and is always represented by the pronoun “it.” >

I'm okay with that. But there is a difference between a generic usage of a word and a specific usage. I don't think I need to point out the difference between usages of the word pneuma when addressing breath and the holy spirit.

<All present day Bibles are compiled from “ancient manuscripts,” the oldest dating back to the fourth century C.E. No two ancient manuscripts are identical. All Bibles today are produced by combining manuscripts with no single definitive reference. The Bible translators attempt to “choose” the correct version. In other words, since they do not know which “ancient manuscript” is the correct one, they decide for us which “version” for a given verse to accept.>

This is fine, though it strikes me as a clumsy attempt to set the table for an unjustified conclusion.

< Take John 14:26 as an example. John 14:26 is the only verse of the Bible which associates the Parakletos with the Holy Spirit. >

And this is a big step backward. In the very same dialogue, in John 15:26, Jesus says:

<But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:>

the author of your quote is essentially affirming that is not the same reference as in 14:26. Just because the reference in 15:26 doesn't say "holy" spirit doesn't mean it's not the same thing. That is a real weakness of this whole point, a fatal one in my mind, and it permeates everything that follows.

<But the “ancient manuscripts” are not in agreement that the “Parakletos” is the ‘Holy Spirit.’ For instance, the famous Codex Syriacus, written around the fifth century C.E., and discovered in 1812 on Mount Sinai, the text of 14:26 reads; “Paraclete, the Spirit”; and not “Paraclete, the Holy Spirit.” >

More of the same. This is treading the line of sophistry.

<Muslim scholars state that what Jesus actually said in Aramaic represents more closely the Greek word periklytos which means the ‘admired one.’>

And on what objective basiss do they pick out a somewhat similar Greek word. What manuscript evidence is there for <that>? Sure, there are sometimes words that are hard to nail down completely, but that doesn't give one the ex post facto right to pick out an entirely new word with no manuscript basis whatsoever.

< In Arabic the word ‘Muhammad’ means the ‘praiseworthy, admired one.’ In other words, periklytos is “Muhammad” in Greek.>

Just show me the manuscript evidence for "periklytos" and you have at least a starting point.

< We have two strong reasons in its support. First, due to several documented cases of similar word substitution in the Bible, it is quite possible that both words were contained in the original text but were dropped by a copyist because of the ancient custom of writing words closely packed, with no spaces in between. In such a case the original reading would have been, “and He will give you another comforter (parakletos), the admirable one (periklytos).”>

Scholars or not, they are fighting a losing battle per the points I already raised.

< The following are some who attest that the Paraclete is indeed an allusion to Prophet Muhammad, The First Witness
Anselm Turmeda (1352/55-1425 C.E.), a priest and Christian scholar, was a witness to the prophecy. After accepting Islam he wrote the book, “Tuhfat al-arib fi al-radd ‘ala Ahl al-Salib.” “Besides the larger discrepancies, such as these, there is scarcely a verse in which there is not some variation of phrase in some copies [of the ancient manuscripts from which the Bible has been collected]. No one can say that these additions or omissions or alterations are matters of mere indifference.” >

Translation: "Since there's some question on the exact meaning of a Greek word, we get to substitute a Greek word that is <never> used in any mansucript."

<The Second Witness
Abdul-Ahad Dawud, was the former Rev. David Abdu Benjamin Keldani, BD, a Roman Catholic priest of the Uniate-Chaldean sect.. After accepting Islam, he wrote the book, ‘Muhammad in the Bible.’ He writes in this book: “There is not the slightest doubt that by “Periqlyte,” Prophet Muhammad, i.e. Ahmad, is intended.”>

This self serving affirmation hardly qualifies as scholarship.

<The Third Witness
Commenting on the verse where Jesus predicts the coming of Prophet Muhammad: “…a messenger who shall come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad…” Qur’an 61:6 … Asad explains that the word Parakletos:
“…[it] is almost certainly a corruption of Periklytos (‘the Much-Praised’), an exact Greek translation of the Aramaic term or name Mawhamana. (It is to be borne in mind that Aramaic was the language used in Palestine at the time of, and for some centuries after Jesus and was thus undoubtedly the language in which the original - now lost - texts of the Gospels were composed.) In view of the phonetic closeness of Periklytos and Parakletos it is easy to understand how the translator - or, more probably, a later scribe - confused these two expressions.>

Again, just because there is an occasional problem in that regard doesn't give one the ex post facto right to assume it in to make a case. But if that's the best they got, it's the best they got.

< It is significant that both the Aramaic Mawhamana and the Greek Periklytos have the same meaning as the two names of the Last Prophet, Muhammad and Ahmad, both of which are derived from the Hebrew verb hamida (‘he praised’) and the Hebrew noun hamd (‘praise’).”>

1) The people were waiting for a Prophet, apart from the Messiah and John the Baptist as indicated in John 1:21. ('That Prophet')>

I think they were misunderstanding prophecies of the Messiah.

<2) Jesus (pbuh) talking in some detail about a Comforter to come after him. John 16:7-14>

Jesus was talking about the Holy Spirit. I will put together more references in a future post that make it crystal clear.

<3) The Comforter couldn't be the Holy Ghost cause Jesus (pbuh) has to leave for him to come. >

The Holy Ghost came in a manifestation after the death of Jesus that had never occurred before. Part of that manifestation was to remind the apostles of everything Jesus had taught them. That <had> to be in their lifetime. This point alone disproves your entire claim.

<4) Also the use of 'he' throughout the referencing of the Comforter, indicating that it would be a human being.>

God is routinely described with the pronoun "he". That doesn't prove God is a human.

<5) The fact that the word Parakletos is so close to Periklytos.>

Self serving after the fact guesswork.

<6) And, of course, Deuteronomy 18:18 indicating the Prophet to come to be from among the brethren of the Israelites.>

I just wanted to bring to your notice some issues, which you may or may not be aware of.

You are a man of God and I thought you certainly deserved to know.

If anyone has glorified Jesus (pbuh) after him then it is Muhammad (pbuh) and the Book that was revealed to him.

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On other news, I was just enjoying <tbone's> current playlist in his forum and this caught my eye:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h04C...

You're welcome!

Why do you have a hard time believing there was a conspiracy in the JFK assassination, yet so easily believe in a man in the sky "Creating everything"?